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IAL 2019 June Q5

A Level / Edexcel / S1

IAL 2019 June Paper · Question 5

题目

Problem

The discrete random variable XX represents the score when a biased spinner is spun. The probability distribution of XX is given by

xx2-21-1023
P(X=x)P(X=x)ppppqq14\frac14pp

where pp and qq are probabilities.

(a) Find E(X)E(X).

(2)

Given that Var(X)=2.5\operatorname{Var}(X)=2.5

(b) find the value of pp.

(5)

(c) Hence find the value of qq.

(1)

Amar is invited to play a game with the spinner. The spinner is spun once and X1X_1 is the score on the spinner. If X1>0X_1>0 Amar wins the game. If X1=0X_1=0 Amar loses the game. If X1<0X_1<0 the spinner is spun again and X2X_2 is the score on this second spin and if X1+X2>0X_1+X_2>0 Amar wins the game, otherwise Amar loses the game.

(d) Find the probability that Amar wins the game.

(4)

Amar does not want to lose the game. He says that because E(X)>0E(X)>0 he will play the game.

(e) State, giving a reason, whether or not you would agree with Amar.

(2)

解答

(a)

解法一

思路

展开

直接用期望公式,含 pp 的项会合并。

答题过程

展开 E(X)=2pp+0q+2(14)+3p.\begin{align*} E(X)=-2p-p+0q+2\left(\frac14\right)+3p. \end{align*}

The terms in pp cancel, so

E(X)=12.\begin{align*} E(X)=\frac12. \end{align*}

(b)

解法一

思路

展开

先求 E(X2)E(X^2),再用 Var(X)=E(X2)[E(X)]2\operatorname{Var}(X)=E(X^2)-[E(X)]^2

答题过程

展开 E(X2)=(2)2p+(1)2p+02q+22(14)+32p=14p+1.\begin{aligned} E(X^2) =&\,(-2)^2p+(-1)^2p+0^2q+2^2\left(\frac14\right)+3^2p\\ =&\,14p+1. \end{aligned}

Since Var(X)=2.5\operatorname{Var}(X)=2.5,

2.5=(14p+1)(12)2.\begin{align*} 2.5=(14p+1)-\left(\frac12\right)^2. \end{align*}

So

2.5=14p+0.75.\begin{align*} 2.5=14p+0.75. \end{align*}

Hence

14p=1.75,\begin{align*} 14p=1.75, \end{align*}

and

p=18.\begin{align*} p=\frac18. \end{align*}

(c)

解法一

思路

展开

用总概率为 1。已有三个 pp,还有一个 14\frac14

答题过程

展开

The probabilities sum to 1:

3p+q+14=1.\begin{align*} 3p+q+\frac14=1. \end{align*}

Using p=18p=\frac18,

q=13814=38.\begin{align*} q=1-\frac38-\frac14=\frac38. \end{align*}

(d)

解法一

思路

展开

Amar 第一转直接赢的情况是 X1=2X_1=233。如果第一转是负数,要看第二转能否把总和变成正数。

答题过程

展开

Amar wins immediately if X1=2X_1=2 or X1=3X_1=3. This has probability

14+p.\begin{align*} \frac14+p. \end{align*}

If X1=2X_1=-2, he needs X2=3X_2=3, giving probability

pp=p2.\begin{align*} p\cdot p=p^2. \end{align*}

If X1=1X_1=-1, he needs X2=2X_2=2 or X2=3X_2=3, giving probability

p(14+p).\begin{align*} p\left(\frac14+p\right). \end{align*}

Therefore

P(win)=14+p+p2+p(14+p).P(\text{win}) =\frac14+p+p^2+p\left(\frac14+p\right).

Using p=18p=\frac18,

P(win)=14+18+164+18(14+18)=716.P(\text{win}) =\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{64} +\frac{1}{8}\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}\right) =\frac{7}{16}.

解法二

思路

展开

对立事件(输概率补集法)。 我们也可以通过计算 Amar 输掉游戏的概率,再用 1P(lose)1 - P(\text{lose}) 得到赢的概率。 根据规则,Amar 输掉游戏的情况如下:

  • 第一转直接输掉:即 X1=0X_1 = 0
  • 第一转 X1=2X_1 = -2,且第二转无法使其和大于 0(即 X22X_2 \leqslant 2)。由于 XX 只能取 2,1,0,2,3-2, -1, 0, 2, 3,满足 X22X_2 \leqslant 2 的概率为 1P(X2=3)=1p1 - P(X_2=3) = 1 - p
  • 第一转 X1=1X_1 = -1,且第二转无法使其和大于 0(即 X21X_2 \leqslant 1)。满足 X21X_2 \leqslant 1 的概率为 1P(X2=2)P(X2=3)=114p=0.75p1 - P(X_2=2) - P(X_2=3) = 1 - \frac{1}{4} - p = 0.75 - p。 因此,Amar 输掉游戏的概率为:
P(lose)=P(X1=0)+P(X1=2)P(X22X1=2)+P(X1=1)P(X21X1=1)\begin{align*} P(\text{lose}) = P(X_1=0) + P(X_1=-2)P(X_2 \leqslant 2 \mid X_1=-2) + P(X_1=-1)P(X_2 \leqslant 1 \mid X_1=-1) \end{align*}

即:

P(lose)=q+p(1p)+p(0.75p)\begin{align*} P(\text{lose}) = q + p(1-p) + p(0.75-p) \end{align*}

代入 p=18,q=38p = \frac{1}{8}, q = \frac{3}{8},求出 P(lose)P(\text{lose}),最后取补集即可。此方法同样分类清晰,而且使用补集概念能够非常有效地交叉验证第一种解法的正确性。

答题过程

展开

We can find the probability of winning by using the complement rule:

P(win)=1P(lose).\begin{align*} P(\text{win}) =&\,\, 1 - P(\text{lose}). \end{align*}

Amar loses the game in the following cases:

  • The first spin is 00: P(X1=0)=q.\begin{align*} P(X_1 = 0) = q. \end{align*}
  • The first spin is 2-2 and the sum remains 0\leqslant 0 after the second spin (i.e., X22X_2 \leqslant 2): P(X1=2X22)=p×(1P(X=3))=p(1p).\begin{align*} P(X_1 = -2 \cap X_2 \leqslant 2) = p \times (1 - P(X=3)) = p(1 - p). \end{align*}
  • The first spin is 1-1 and the sum remains 0\leqslant 0 after the second spin (i.e., X21X_2 \leqslant 1): P(X1=1X21)=p×(1P(X=2)P(X=3))=p(114p)=p(0.75p).\begin{align*} P(X_1 = -1 \cap X_2 \leqslant 1) = p \times (1 - P(X=2) - P(X=3)) = p\left(1 - \frac{1}{4} - p\right) = p(0.75 - p). \end{align*}

Therefore:

P(lose)=q+p(1p)+p(0.75p).\begin{align*} P(\text{lose}) =&\,\, q + p(1-p) + p(0.75-p). \end{align*}

Substitute p=18p = \frac{1}{8} and q=38q = \frac{3}{8}:

P(lose)=38+18(118)+18(3418)=38+18(78)+18(58)=38+764+564=2464+1264=3664=916.\begin{align*} P(\text{lose}) =&\,\, \frac{3}{8} + \frac{1}{8}\left(1 - \frac{1}{8}\right) + \frac{1}{8}\left(\frac{3}{4} - \frac{1}{8}\right)\\[3mm] =&\,\, \frac{3}{8} + \frac{1}{8}\left(\frac{7}{8}\right) + \frac{1}{8}\left(\frac{5}{8}\right)\\[3mm] =&\,\, \frac{3}{8} + \frac{7}{64} + \frac{5}{64}\\[3mm] =&\,\, \frac{24}{64} + \frac{12}{64}\\[3mm] =&\,\, \frac{36}{64}\\[3mm] =&\,\, \frac{9}{16}. \end{align*}

Thus, the probability of Amar winning is:

P(win)=1916=716.\begin{align*} P(\text{win}) =&\,\, 1 - \frac{9}{16}\\[3mm] =&\,\, \frac{7}{16}. \end{align*}

(e)

解法一

思路

展开

Amar 关心的是赢的概率,不是单次 spinner 分数的期望。虽然 E(X)>0E(X)>0,但赢的概率是 716<12\frac{7}{16}<\frac12

答题过程

展开

I would not agree with Amar.

Although E(X)>0E(X)>0,

P(win)=716<12.\begin{align*} P(\text{win})=\frac{7}{16}<\frac12. \end{align*}

So he is more likely to lose than to win.